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03-27-2008, 05:25 PM #1
Renter
- Join Date
- Mar 2008
- Posts
- 2
House buyout
I recently received a large sum of money from a house buyout due to divorce. I plan on purchasing another home with this money. Do I have to buy within a certain period of time, before this money is declared income and I have to pay taxes on it. Thank you
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03-28-2008, 06:23 PM #2
I am not an accountant, attorney, or even a licensed agent so this is strictly my own opinion and I suggest to talk to one of the persons described.
From what I understand there is no time limit. It is money you gained from the selling of your personal property. The "how" is important, not how long you hang on to it.
Again I am no expert on taxes... yet. This is only my understanding and I would confirm it myself before acting on this conclusion.________________________
I do not have a real estate license. I'm just the average Joe.
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03-29-2008, 08:09 PM #3
Fixer Upper
- Join Date
- Feb 2007
- Posts
- 58
Did you live in that house for 2 of the last 5 years? If so, the first $250,000 of gain is tax-free. Remember to subtract your original basis cost in the house and what is left over is the gain.
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03-29-2008, 08:53 PM #4
Condominium
- Join Date
- Jan 2008
- Location
- NW suburbs of Chicago
- Posts
- 107
Primary place of residence for a total of 2 years in the past 5, doesn't need to be consecutive. Otherwise, you report cap gain on your yearly taxes just the same as income. You didn't mention whether your spouse had been using it as part of a divorce or separation agreement prior to the buyout.
Last edited by TomAnto; 03-29-2008 at 08:59 PM.
http://tantoine.wordpress.com/ I do not hold myself out to be an attorney. Consult with a local attorney for proper advice. IRS Circular 230: This response is, written for educational purposes only. It does not establish a client relationship. This communication is not intended to be used, and cannot be used, for the purpose of (i) avoiding tax-related penalties under the Internal Revenue Code or (ii) promoting, marketing or recommending to any party any matters addressed herein.
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03-30-2008, 05:20 AM #5
Renter
- Join Date
- Mar 2008
- Posts
- 2
House buyout
You didn't mention whether your spouse had been using it as part of a divorce or separation agreement prior to the buyout.[/quote]
I'm sorry but I don't know what you mean by this. He refinanced the house and gave me my portion, once all the fees, etc. were removed. Our settlement mentioned this is how I was to receive my half.
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03-30-2008, 09:17 AM #6
Condominium
- Join Date
- Jan 2008
- Location
- NW suburbs of Chicago
- Posts
- 107
It merely asks if the home had been used by your spouse in connection with a separation agreement while divorce proceedings were ongoing or as part of the divorce agreement. This is common where one spouse agrees to allow the other to live in the marital home while things are sorted out.
http://tantoine.wordpress.com/ I do not hold myself out to be an attorney. Consult with a local attorney for proper advice. IRS Circular 230: This response is, written for educational purposes only. It does not establish a client relationship. This communication is not intended to be used, and cannot be used, for the purpose of (i) avoiding tax-related penalties under the Internal Revenue Code or (ii) promoting, marketing or recommending to any party any matters addressed herein.



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