neilpuck
08-28-2007, 07:13 AM
I'll keep it brief. When I purchased my house in 2004, I was told and understood that there was no land included outside of the footprint of the building. However, in reviewing the tax records recently, and reviewing my deed, it seems as if that's not the case. There is 500 square feet still included according to my deed. (in the city, not a small amount of property). I do have title insurance and clear title.
I had been told that in a prior transaction concerning my property, that 500 sqfeet was transferred to my neighbor.
After verifying my title and deed, I went back to the tax records, and searched for the address of my neighbor. Sure enough, the same 500 square feet appears to have been deeded to them in 1989 according to those records. Does one supercede the other? If I'm holding title to that land, then who owns it? What recourse do I have. Is the title company on the hook for the value of that land? How would the value be determined? I'm not looking to make enemies, and if in fact their claim supercedes mine, I can live with that.
I'm expecting to hire a lawyer for this, but wanted to get some backfround (free :D ) advice before I went in.
I had been told that in a prior transaction concerning my property, that 500 sqfeet was transferred to my neighbor.
After verifying my title and deed, I went back to the tax records, and searched for the address of my neighbor. Sure enough, the same 500 square feet appears to have been deeded to them in 1989 according to those records. Does one supercede the other? If I'm holding title to that land, then who owns it? What recourse do I have. Is the title company on the hook for the value of that land? How would the value be determined? I'm not looking to make enemies, and if in fact their claim supercedes mine, I can live with that.
I'm expecting to hire a lawyer for this, but wanted to get some backfround (free :D ) advice before I went in.