peter8d9
12-29-2006, 03:48 PM
I'm a 23 year old married man with the opportunity to purchase my wife's grandmother's house. I have a solid job making approx 40-50k a year. Her grandmother is willing to sell her house to us for 200k which is 50k less than a real estate agent appraised it at and 100k less than zillow.com showed for the property. It is located in Anne Arundel County, MD. She would be leaving almost all the furniture in the house which makes it perfect for someone to rent.
If we purchased it, it would be an investment property because we are moving to WY and would be renting it out to a close friend of ours who recently married and had a baby. I have enough in my retirement to cover the downpayment but am not sure about completely draining my retirement to invest in this house. I would like to sell them the house in about 5-10 years and they know this. I was thinking about working out a deal where the rent would cover the mortgage, taxes and insurance on the house but nothing over that. Also, whatever they give me for the rent would eventually go towards purchasing the property.
Now, I worked the numbers a little bit and realized that the money they would pay me would be taking care of mose of the interest on the loan and not much of the principle. When we go to sell it we will still have a majority of the mortgage left. This worries me because if the value of the house goes down to something like 200k, we will sell him the house for 200k - approx 66.5k for what he has already paid us. That will leave us with 133.5k and a mortgage of 168k, not to mention the original 20k put into the house as a downpayment. However, if it works out it is worth 250k, we break about even and if it is worth anymore at the end of that we start making money.
This leads me to the question, should I instead just have a percentage, say 75% of the rent will transfer to the purchase price of the house?
Also, he does have 20k available to put as a downpayment but in return would like to see the rent drop by several hundred each month. Is there a way this could be viable as well?
Is there any way that I wouldn't need a downpayment? Could we work something where the "purchase price" is ~220k and we would get the loan for 200k to pay what her grandmother's asking price is. Since she is looking to sell the property for a discount is there any other arrangement we could work out to benefit all of us.
Thanks for your time if you can answer even one of my questions.
If we purchased it, it would be an investment property because we are moving to WY and would be renting it out to a close friend of ours who recently married and had a baby. I have enough in my retirement to cover the downpayment but am not sure about completely draining my retirement to invest in this house. I would like to sell them the house in about 5-10 years and they know this. I was thinking about working out a deal where the rent would cover the mortgage, taxes and insurance on the house but nothing over that. Also, whatever they give me for the rent would eventually go towards purchasing the property.
Now, I worked the numbers a little bit and realized that the money they would pay me would be taking care of mose of the interest on the loan and not much of the principle. When we go to sell it we will still have a majority of the mortgage left. This worries me because if the value of the house goes down to something like 200k, we will sell him the house for 200k - approx 66.5k for what he has already paid us. That will leave us with 133.5k and a mortgage of 168k, not to mention the original 20k put into the house as a downpayment. However, if it works out it is worth 250k, we break about even and if it is worth anymore at the end of that we start making money.
This leads me to the question, should I instead just have a percentage, say 75% of the rent will transfer to the purchase price of the house?
Also, he does have 20k available to put as a downpayment but in return would like to see the rent drop by several hundred each month. Is there a way this could be viable as well?
Is there any way that I wouldn't need a downpayment? Could we work something where the "purchase price" is ~220k and we would get the loan for 200k to pay what her grandmother's asking price is. Since she is looking to sell the property for a discount is there any other arrangement we could work out to benefit all of us.
Thanks for your time if you can answer even one of my questions.